C-S4CPB-2402 Dumps PDF

C-S4CPB-2402 Praxisprüfung - C-S4CPB-2402 Vorbereitung, SAP Certified Associate - Implementation Consultant - SAP S/4HANA Cloud Public Edition Prüfungsfrage - Photoexperienceacademy

• Name: SAP Certified Associate - Implementation Consultant - SAP S/4HANA Cloud Public Edition
• Exam Code: C-S4CPB-2402
• Certification: C-S4CPB-2402
• Vendor: SAP
• Total Question: 630
• Price: 49$

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NEW QUESTION: 1
You have an invoice for $200 USD and a credit memo for $225 USD. In other words, the credit amount exceeds the invoice amount. If you enable the option to apply credits up to zero amount payment, then how will the invoice and credit memo be paid?
A. Both the invoice and the credit memo are selected and the Payment Process Request requires attention.
B. Both the invoice and credit memo are included in the payment process request for a payment amount of
$0 USD. The credit memo is partially paid with a remaining credit of $25 USD.
C. Both the invoice and the credit memo are paid and a refund of $25 USD is created.
D. Neither the invoice nor the credit memo are included in the payment process request because the credit reduces the payment amount below zero.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
When you submit a "payment process request", you can enable the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option. Enabling the option causes the payment process to apply credits when the credits reduce the payment amount below zero.
The following scenario illustrate the impact of this option.
Credit Amount Greater Than Invoice Amount
An invoice for 200 USD and a credit memo for 225 USD are due for payment.
The following tabledescribes the payment processing that occurs based on the setting for the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option.
Assume that the "Apply Credits Up to Zero Amount" option is enabled.
Payment processing applies 200 USD of the credit memo to the invoice and creates a payment for 0 USD. The remaining credit is 25 USD.
References:https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/helpPortal/topic/TopicId_P_9F438E13CC89BA0CE040D30A68816F7

NEW QUESTION: 2
Wendall Wayne is a fixed income portfolio manager with Skyline Investments. Until recently he has focused almost exclusively on residential mortgage-backed securities (MBS). However, two weeks ago he was given approval to begin purchasing asset-backed securities (ABS) and commercial MBS as well.
Wayne has forecasted that interest rates will decrease by approximately 100 basis points over the next month.
Wayne first completes an analysis of two tranches (a PAC I tranche and a support tranche) from a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) that was issued 18 months ago. When the CMO was issued, the initial collar of the PAC I tranche was 150 - 400 PSA. He estimates the change in the average life of each tranche as the prepayment speed varies, assuming the prepayment speed stays at that speed until the tranche matures. The results are shown in Exhibit 1.

In his report, Wayne makes the following statements regarding the CMO:
Statement 1: The CMO is structured so that the support tranche has more extension risk, and the PAC I tranche has more contraction risk.
Statement 2: The cash flows of the PAC I tranche will be less affected by the change in interest rates I have forecast than the cash flows of the support tranche.
Wayne has pushed for approval to begin trading ABS because he is particularly interested in collateralized debt obligations (CDOs). However, he doesn't know a lot about them, so he first does some reading and prepares some key points related to CDOs to guide his analysis.
Statement 3: CDOs are typically collateralized by emerging market bond issues, home equity bank loans, and high-yield corporate bond issues.
Statement 4: One advantage of issuing a synthetic CDO versus a cash CDO is that credit risk is lower with a synthetic CDO because the junior note holders also sell a credit default swap.
Statement 5: Some CDOs include an equity tranche to provide payment and credit protection to the senior and mezzanine tranches, but for most issues, credit protection is provided by external credit enhancements.
Wayne wants to understand the distinction between amortizing and non-amortizing assets that are securitized by ABS transactions, as well as the appropriate spread measures to use for various types of fixed-income securities. He asks a colleague, Martin Freed, to explain to him the difference between the two and how the payment structure of the ABS is affected by whether the assets in the pool are amortizing or non-amortizing. Freed replies:
Statement 6: An auto loan is an example of an amortizing asset, and a credit card receivable is an example of a non-amortizing asset.
Statement 7: For amortizing assets, the composition of the loans in the asset pool doesn't change once the assets are securitized. For non-amortizing assets, the composition of the asset pool does change.
Freed also tells Wayne that the credit analysis of commercial mortgage-backed securities (CMBS) should focus on the credit risk of the property, not the borrower. Freed also says that two key ratios useful for assessing the credit risk of the property are the debt service coverage ratio (net operating income/debt service) and the loan-to-value ratio (current mortgage amount/current appraised value). Wayne concludes that both of the ratios Freed recommends for credit analysis of CMBS are positively related to credit risk:
the higher the ratio, the more risky the loan.
Finally, Wayne is trying to determine the most appropriate spread measure for valuing callable corporate bonds and high-quality home equity loan ABS. He plans to choose from the following measures: the zero- volatility spread, the OAS from the binomial model, and the OAS from the Monte Carlo model.
Is Wayne correct or incorrect with regard to his analysis of debt service coverage and loan-to-value?
A. Correct on debt service coverage only.
B. Correct on loan-to-value only.
C. Correct on both.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Wayne is incorrect with respect to the debt service coverage ratio because the higher the ratio, the lower the credit risk. Wayne is correct with respect to the loan-io-value ratio because the higher the ratio, the higher the credit risk. {Study Session 15, LOS 55.1)

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following about MPLS shortcuts for IGP on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?
A. An IGP route takes priority over a transport tunnel.
B. Multiple MPLS tunnels can be installed in the FIB.
C. MPLS tunnels can be used to resolve the prefixes learned via IGP.
D. Both LDP and RSVP-TE based tunnels can be used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D

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